Study guide · Session 2
Portfolio Construction
8-12% of the exam · session 2 · 6 learning modules
This topic covers how investors combine assets into portfolios: digital assets as a new asset class, the mathematics of risk, return and diversification, the CAPM and risk-adjusted performance measures, the investors and products of the asset management industry, the investment policy statement and the behavioural biases that shape decisions. Level I questions mix short calculations (portfolio standard deviation, CAPM, Sharpe and Treynor ratios) with recall and application of definitions.
A study feature written by ExamDragon, not part of the real exam. Each heading is one of this topic's 6 learning modules in the 2027 curriculum, named in our own words.
At a glance
Session 2of the exam, as CFA Institute weights it for 2027
- Weight
- 8-12%
- Modules
- 6
- Key terms
- 9
What this guide covers, module by module
PC.1Diversification, utility and efficient frontiers
- Over long periods, small-company stocks have had the highest average returns and risk, then large-company stocks, then bonds, then Treasury bills; higher return has come with higher risk.
- A risk-averse investor needs a higher expected return to accept more risk; utility can be written U = E(r) - 0.5 x A x variance, where A is the risk-aversion coefficient (higher A means more risk averse; A = 0 is risk neutral).
- Sample variance = sum of squared deviations from the mean / (n - 1); covariance measures how two returns move together, and correlation = covariance / (sigma1 x sigma2), between -1 and +1.
- Two-asset portfolio variance = w1^2 x s1^2 + w2^2 x s2^2 + 2 x w1 x w2 x rho x s1 x s2; the portfolio standard deviation is below the weighted average of the two whenever rho is below +1.
- The lower the correlation, the larger the diversification benefit; with rho = -1 a zero-risk portfolio of the two assets exists.
- The minimum-variance frontier shows the lowest risk for each expected return; its leftmost point is the global minimum-variance portfolio, and the part above it is the efficient frontier.
- The optimal portfolio is where the investor's highest attainable indifference curve touches the capital allocation line.
- The situationA portfolio is 50% in asset A (standard deviation 18%) and 50% in asset B (standard deviation 12%), with correlation 0.2.
- Step 1Variance = 0.25 x 0.0324 + 0.25 x 0.0144 + 2 x 0.5 x 0.5 x 0.2 x 0.18 x 0.12.
- Step 2= 0.0081 + 0.0036 + 0.00216 = 0.01386.
- Step 3Standard deviation = square root of 0.01386 = 11.8%, against a weighted average of 15.0%.
- Where questions turnForgetting to square the weights and standard deviations, or using the weighted average of standard deviations, which is correct only when the correlation is +1.
- The takeawayCorrelation below 1 cuts portfolio risk below the weighted average of the assets' risks.
PC.2CAPM, beta and risk-adjusted ratios
- Combining a risk-free asset with a risky portfolio gives a straight capital allocation line: E(Rp) = Rf + [(E(Ri) - Rf) / sigma_i] x sigma_p; when the risky portfolio is the market, the line is the capital market line.
- Total risk = systematic (market) risk + nonsystematic (firm-specific) risk; nonsystematic risk can be diversified away at little cost, so the market rewards only systematic risk.
- Beta = covariance(i, m) / variance(m) = correlation x sigma_i / sigma_m; the market model is Ri = alpha + beta x Rm + error.
- CAPM: E(Ri) = Rf + beta x [E(Rm) - Rf]; plotted against beta it is the security market line. An asset whose forecast return is above the SML is undervalued, below it overvalued.
- Sharpe ratio = (Rp - Rf) / sigma_p; Treynor ratio = (Rp - Rf) / beta_p; M-squared = Rf + Sharpe ratio x sigma_m (compare with Rm); Jensen's alpha = Rp - [Rf + beta_p x (Rm - Rf)].
- Sharpe and M-squared use total risk and suit a whole portfolio; Treynor and Jensen's alpha use systematic risk and suit a well-diversified portfolio that is part of a larger one.
- The situationA fund returned 9% with standard deviation 15% and beta 0.9; the risk-free rate was 3% and the market returned 8% with standard deviation 12%.
- Step 1Sharpe = (9 - 3) / 15 = 0.40, against the market's (8 - 3) / 12 = 0.42.
- Step 2Treynor = (9 - 3) / 0.9 = 6.67%, against the market's 5.00%.
- Step 3Jensen's alpha = 9 - [3 + 0.9 x 5] = 1.5%; M-squared = 3 + 0.40 x 12 = 7.8%, 0.2% below the market.
- Where questions turnUsing total risk (standard deviation) where beta belongs, as in the CAPM, or forgetting to subtract the risk-free rate.
- The takeawayThe fund beat the market on systematic risk but not on total risk, so it carries unrewarded nonsystematic risk.
PC.3Investor types, pensions and pooled funds
- The portfolio approach judges each investment by its effect on the whole portfolio's risk and return; diversification lowers risk without necessarily lowering expected return, though it may fail in severe crises when correlations rise.
- The process has three steps: planning (understand the client, write the investment policy statement), execution (asset allocation, security analysis, portfolio construction) and feedback (monitoring, rebalancing and performance evaluation).
- Investors differ: individuals (varied horizons and needs), defined benefit plans, endowments and foundations (long horizons, spending needs), banks (short horizon, liquidity, matching deposits), insurers (life: longer horizon; property and casualty: shorter, more liquidity), sovereign wealth funds.
- In a defined benefit plan the employer promises a retirement benefit and bears the investment risk; in a defined contribution plan contributions are set and the employee bears the investment risk and chooses the investments.
- Asset managers can be active or passive, and traditional or alternative; passive management has gained share, and the industry has consolidated.
- Open-end mutual funds issue and redeem shares at net asset value; closed-end funds have a fixed number of shares that trade on an exchange, often away from NAV; exchange-traded funds trade intraday, usually close to NAV because authorised participants create and redeem units.
- The situationTwo employees retire with the same salary history: one in a defined benefit plan promising 1.5% of final salary per year of service, the other in a defined contribution plan whose account fell 20% in the last year.
- Step 1The defined benefit pension is set by the formula; the investment loss falls on the sponsor, which may need to contribute more.
- Step 2The defined contribution account balance is what the employee has; the 20% loss falls on the employee.
- Step 3So investment risk sits with the sponsor in one case and with the participant in the other.
- Where questions turnMixing up open-end and closed-end funds: only closed-end fund shares trade at prices that can sit well away from NAV for long periods.
- The takeawayWho bears investment risk is the key difference between the two plan types.
PC.4Writing an IPS and allocating assets
- An investment policy statement (IPS) is a written agreement that sets out the client's objectives and constraints and the rules for managing the portfolio; it gives discipline and continuity if the adviser changes.
- Major components: introduction, statement of purpose, duties and responsibilities, procedures for updating, investment objectives, constraints, guidelines, evaluation and review, and often appendices on strategic asset allocation and rebalancing.
- Return objectives can be absolute (a required return) or relative to a benchmark; a required real return combines with inflation as (1 + real) x (1 + inflation) - 1.
- Risk tolerance has two parts: ability (capacity), set by horizon, wealth and spending needs relative to assets, and willingness, a psychological attitude; when they conflict, the adviser usually follows the lower and discusses the gap with the client.
- Constraints: liquidity, time horizon, tax concerns, legal and regulatory factors, and unique circumstances (including ethical or ESG preferences).
- Asset classes should be internally similar, distinct from each other with low correlations, and together cover the investable universe; strategic asset allocation is the long-term mix, tactical allocation a short-term deviation.
- ESG can be integrated by negative or positive screening, ESG integration in analysis, thematic investing, impact investing and active ownership (engagement and proxy voting).
- The situationA retired client with USD 2,000,000 needs USD 70,000 a year from the portfolio and wants to keep its purchasing power with expected inflation of 2.5%.
- Step 1Real return needed = 70,000 / 2,000,000 = 3.5%.
- Step 2Nominal return = (1.035 x 1.025) - 1 = 6.09%, about 6.1%.
- Step 3The additive shortcut 3.5% + 2.5% = 6.0% slightly understates it.
- Where questions turnAssuming a client who says they love risk can take it: ability to take risk can be low (short horizon, large spending needs) even when willingness is high.
- The takeawayReturn objectives are built from spending needs and inflation, compounded rather than added.
PC.5Cognitive errors and emotional biases
- Cognitive errors come from faulty reasoning or information processing and can often be corrected with better information and education; emotional biases come from feelings and intuition and are harder to correct, so advisers often adapt to them.
- Belief perseverance errors: conservatism (slow to update on new information), confirmation (seeking support for existing views), representativeness (judging by resemblance or a small sample), illusion of control and hindsight.
- Processing errors: anchoring and adjustment, mental accounting (treating money differently by its source or purpose), framing (choices change with how the question is posed) and availability (overweighting easily recalled events).
- Emotional biases: loss aversion (losses hurt more than equal gains please, leading to holding losers too long and selling winners early), overconfidence, self-control, status quo, endowment and regret aversion.
- Biases can help explain market patterns that traditional finance struggles with, such as momentum, bubbles and crashes, and the value effect.
- The situationAn investor keeps a stock that has fallen 40% because selling would 'make the loss real', while selling another that rose 15% to 'lock in the gain'.
- Step 1The pain of realising a loss outweighs the pleasure of an equal gain.
- Step 2This is loss aversion, an emotional bias, which shows up as the disposition effect.
- Step 3An adviser might moderate it with rules set in advance, such as a review trigger after a set decline.
- Where questions turnClassifying overconfidence or loss aversion as cognitive errors, or confusing anchoring (sticking to an initial number) with conservatism (slow updating of beliefs).
- The takeawayEmotional biases are usually managed by adapting the process rather than by more information.
PC.6Risk frameworks, governance and budgets
- Risk management is the process of setting the level of risk an organisation is willing to take, measuring the risk it actually takes and adjusting the two to match; the aim is the right risk, not the least risk.
- Risk governance is the top-down layer: the board sets risk tolerance and oversight, and management carries it out through policies, limits and reporting.
- Risk tolerance is how much risk the organisation will accept in pursuit of its goals; it should be set before a crisis, not during one.
- Risk budgeting allocates the total risk the organisation will bear across activities or asset classes, for example by volatility, factor exposure or value at risk.
- Financial risks include market, credit and liquidity risk; non-financial risks include operational, legal, compliance, model, settlement, tax and reputational risk, and the two kinds often interact, especially in stress.
- Ways to modify risk: avoid it, accept it (self-insure or diversify), transfer it (insurance) or shift it (derivatives such as forwards, futures, swaps and options).
- The situationA pension fund's board sets a maximum annual volatility of 10% for the whole portfolio and splits it between equities (7 percentage points of contribution to total volatility) and bonds (3 percentage points).
- Step 1The 10% ceiling is a statement of risk tolerance made by the governing body.
- Step 2Dividing that ceiling between asset classes is risk budgeting.
- Step 3Measuring each manager against its share and acting on breaches is risk monitoring and modification.
- Where questions turnConfusing transferring risk (paying an insurer to bear the loss) with shifting risk (changing the payoff profile with a derivative), or treating risk management as risk minimisation.
- The takeawayGovernance sets the limit, budgeting allocates it, and management measures and adjusts against it.
Key terms
- Consensus mechanism
- The rule a distributed ledger uses to agree which transactions are valid.
- Stablecoin
- A digital asset designed to keep a stable value, usually against a fiat currency.
- Risk-aversion coefficient (A)
- The parameter in the utility function that measures how much an investor dislikes variance.
- Global minimum-variance portfolio
- The portfolio of risky assets with the lowest possible variance.
- Capital market line
- The capital allocation line that uses the market portfolio as the risky portfolio.
- Beta
- Covariance of an asset with the market divided by the market's variance; a measure of systematic risk.
- Security market line
- The CAPM plotted as expected return against beta.
- Investment policy statement
- The written document setting a client's objectives, constraints and portfolio rules.
- Loss aversion
- Feeling the pain of a loss more strongly than the pleasure of an equal gain.
After this guide: After this guide you should be able to compute portfolio risk, CAPM returns and the four performance ratios, place an investor and an IPS component correctly, and classify a behavioural bias.
Practise Portfolio ConstructionBuilt to the topics and weights CFA Institute publishes for the 2027 Level I curriculum. The module names, explanations, worked examples and traps are ExamDragon's own. Every source this path is built on.
